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April 4, 2008

Mathmagic

can you figure out which step makes this a false statement?

2 comments:

Anonymous said...

When they replaced a with b?? because a+b=b would mean a=0 right??

Anonymous said...

Step #6
You cant have (a+b)=b and then replace a with b because then that would make the a = 0 so there is no way that a could ever equal b.... i think at least. The only way it could be possible is if a and b =ed 0 but then it would contradict the beginning problem of two different #s that were equivalent. (2=1)